STUDY TIME

Annual Examination (Directorate of Education)

Practice Question Papers (Solved)

Session-2022-23

Social Science

Class-IX

TIME: 3 Hours.                                                 M.M.-80

Instruction:

(i) This question paper is divided into 6 sections. Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D, Section E and Section F. There are total 37 questions in this question paper.

(ii) All questions are compulsory. However, internal choice is available in some questions. Attempt any one question out of them.

(iii) Marks assigned to the questions are written against them.

(iv) Section A consists of multiple choice type questions with question numbers 1 to 20 carrying 10 marks.

(v) In Section B, question numbers 21 to 24 are very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

(vi) In Section C, question numbers 25 to 29 are short answer type questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.

(vii) In Section D, question numbers 30 to 33 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

(viii) In Section E, question numbers 34 to 36 are case based questions carrying 4 marks each.

(xi) In Section F, question number 37 is a map based question carrying 5 marks in which 37.1 is a map work of 2 marks relating to History and 37.2 is a map work of 3 marks relating to Geography.

(x) In place of map based question number 37, separate questions have been given for visually impaired students.

Section - A (Multiple Choice Questions)

(20x1=20 marks)

Question 1. Identify the incorrect match.

A. Annapurna - Nepal

B. Gurla Mandhata - Nepal

C. Dhaulagiri - Nepal

D. Kangchenjunga - Nepal

Answer. B. Gurla Mandhata - Nepal

Question 2. Which one of the following is the function of a primary sector?

A. Agriculture

B. Manufacturing

C. Communication

D. Banking

Answer. A. Agriculture.

Question 3. Identify the correct option by matching column A and column B.

	Column A	Column B
I.	Tax levied by the Church	A. 1789
II.	Tax levied by the state	B. Tide
III.	Fall of the Bastille Fortress	C. 1792
IV.	France to be a republic	D. Tile

Option

A. I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

B. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

C. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

D. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A

Answer. C. I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Question 4. Identify the river on the basis of the given information.

1. Length - 860 kms.

2. Place of Origin - High land of Chhattisgarh.

3. Drainage Area - Jharkhand, Odisha.

A. Krishna

B. Mahanadi

C. Kaveri

D. Tapi

Answer. B. Mahanadi.

Question 5. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

A. Human capital is superior to land and physical capital.

B. Human capital can be created through better education and health facilities.

C. Human capital does not play a role in production.

D. Investment in human capital leads to higher productivity.

Answer. C. Human capital does not play a role in production.

Question 6. Read the thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi given below and complete the sentences.

“I want such a constitution for India which frees her from slavery and subordination…..I will strive for such an India which even the poorest person feels as his own and feels that he too has a share in the making of the country. India in which people of all communities live in complete harmony.

In the India of Mahatma Gandhi's dreams.

A. The poor will also become rich.

B. There will be participation of all individuals in the society.

C. There will be no gap between the poor and the rich.

D. None of the above.

Answer. B. There will be participation of all individuals in the society.

Question 7. The main purpose of HYV seeds is -

A. Increase in amount of grain per plant.

B. Excessive use of pesticides.

C. Decrease in amount of grain per plant.

D. Manufacture of chemical fertilizers.

Answer. A. Increase in amount of grain per plant.

Question 8. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Indian Constitution?

A. The Indian Constitution lays emphasis on the establishment of an egalitarian society.

B. Indian constitution emphasizes on democratic form of government.

C. The Indian Constitution lays emphasis on the development of fraternity among its citizens.

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Answer. D. ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Question 9. The total population of Raj's village is 5000. The total number of babies born in his village during the year 2019-20 is 20. Tell what is the birth rate of Raj's village in the year 2019-20?

A.10

B.20

C.8

D.4

Answer. D. 4

Question 10. The book named 'Two Treatises of Government' was written by -

A. Rousseau

B. Mirabio

C. John Locke

D. Montesquieu

Answer. C. John Locke.

Question 11. In the question below are given two premises, one as assumption (C) and the other as reason (A). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assumption (C) : Abolition of slavery in the French colonies was one of the revolutionary reforms of the Jacobin regime.

Reason (a) : The slaves were treated very badly.

Option :

A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

B. Both assumption (c) and reason (a) are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the concept.

C. Assumption (C) is correct and Reason (A) is wrong.

D. Assumption (C) is wrong and Reason (A) is correct.

Answer. B. Both assumption (c) and reason (a) are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the concept.

Question 12. In the question below are given two premises, one as assumption (C) and the other as reason (A). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assumption (C) : Building is a fixed capital.

Reason (a): The building is used for many years in production.

Option :

A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

B. Both assumption (c) and reason (a) are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the concept.

C. Assumption (C) is correct and Reason (A) is wrong.

D. Assumption (C) is wrong and Reason (A) is correct.

Answer. A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

Question 13. In the question below are given two premises, one as assumption (C) and the other as reason (A). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assumption (C) : India is a sovereign country.

Reason (a) : No country can command India.

A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

B. Both assumption (c) and reason (a) are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the concept.

C. Assumption (C) is correct and Reason (A) is wrong.

D. Assumption (C) is wrong and Reason (A) is correct.

Answer. A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

Question 14. In the question below are given two premises, one as assumption (C) and the other as reason (A). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assumption (C) : Brahmaputra is a perennial river.

Reason (a) : Brahmaputra river of the Himalayas.

Option :

A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

B. Both assumption (c) and reason (a) are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the concept.

C. Assumption (C) is correct and Reason (A) is wrong.

D. Assumption (C) is wrong and Reason (A) is correct.

Answer. A. Both assumption (C) and reason (A) are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the concept.

Question 15. Identify the incorrect statement from the following -

A. Human capital is superior to land and physical capital.

B. Human capital can be developed through better education and health facilities.

C. Human capital does not play a role in production.

D. Investment in human capital leads to higher productivity.

Answer. C. Human capital does not play a role in production.

Question 16. With reference to the reforms carried out by the National Assembly of France, choose the correct option from the options given below -

1. End of the feudal system.

2. The taxes collected by the Church were abolished.

3. Land owned by the Church was allowed to remain with the Church.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All the statements are true.

Answer. B. 1 and 2 only

Question 17. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

A. There is a difference of 2 hours in the local time of Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh.

B. 23° 30' north latitude divides India into almost 2 equal parts.

C. 82° 30' east longitude passes through Gujarat in India.

D. In terms of area, India is the seventh largest country in the world.

Answer. C. 82° 30' east longitude passes through Gujarat in India.

Question 18. John has studied up to post graduation but does not have any job. Tell what type of unemployment is this?

A. Seasonal unemployment

B. educated unemployment

C. disguised unemployment

4. None of these

Answer. B. Educated unemployment.

Question 19. The southern part of the western coastal plain is called -

A. Coromandel Coast

B. Malabar Coast

C. Konkan Coast

D. Kannada Ghat.

Answer. B. Malabar Coast

Question 20. What type of crop is wheat?

A. Zayed

B. Kharif

C. Rabi

D. None of the above.

Answer. C. Rabi

Section - B (Very Short Answer Type Questions)

(4X2=8 marks)

Question 21. Write any two importance of forests in our life.

Answer. By the way Forests are very useful for us. Some of the benefits of forests are as follows -

1. Forests play an important role in establishing balance in nature.

2. Forests also have many medicinal benefits.

Or

Question. Write any two importance of Forest Act of 1878.

Answer. The two importance of the Forest Act of 1878 are as follows -

1. Act of 1878 created three categories of forests -

I. Reserved Forest

II. protected forest

III. village forest

2. Through this act local rights in reserved forests were to be removed and to be kept exclusively as government reserves.

Question 22. How is the poverty line determined in India?

Answer. Poverty line is determined in two ways -

1. Consumption of calories - If a person is consuming less than 2400 calories per day in rural area and 2100 calories in urban area then he will be considered poor.

2. Income - If a person is not getting ₹ 816 per month in rural area and ₹ 1000 per person per month in urban area then he will be considered poor.

Q 23. What do you understand by Model Code of Conduct?

Answer. The rules to be followed by political parties at the time of election campaign are called code of conduct. Its main provisions are as follows -

1. No religious place will be used for election campaign.

2. Government vehicles, aircraft and government officials will not be used in election campaign.

Question 24. Define Minimum Support Price.

Answer. Minimum Support Price is the rate at which the government buys crops from farmers. This rate is at least one and a half times of the cost of production.

Section - C (Short Answer Type Questions)

3X5=15 marks

Question 25. Why did the colonial governments want to convert pastoral land into agricultural land?

Answer. The colonial governments wanted to convert pastoral land into agricultural land for the following reasons:

1. The income of the government could have increased further by increasing the area under cultivation.

2. The government also wanted to promote agriculture so that the production of jute, cotton, wheat etc. could be increased, which were in high demand in England.

3. The British officials believed that no profit could be made from the vacant land, so the British government wanted to convert the pastoral land into agricultural land.

Or

Question. How did the forest laws affect the life of nomadic pastoralists?

Answer. Forest laws affected the life of nomadic pastoralists in the following ways:

1. After the Forest Act, pastoralists were barred from entering the forests, which were earlier a source of valuable fodder for cattle.

2. After the forest laws, the herdsmen had to take a permit to go to the forests, it was forbidden to go to the forests without a permit.

3. After the forest laws, the herders had to go to the forests on the basis of a pre-fixed date and could stay in the forest for less time than before.

Question 26. Explain the causes of migration.

Answer. The settlement of people from one place to another is called migration, many reasons are responsible for this, some of which are as follows -

1. Many people migrate from one place to another in search of employment.

2. Many people migrate from one place to another for better education and health services also.

3. Many people migrate from rural areas to urban areas despite being troubled by poverty and unemployment.

Question 27. Analyze the Right to Equality.

Answer. Article 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution deals with the right to equality. In this right, provision has been made for social equality, legal equality, equality in public service, end of untouchability and end of titles. Right to equality is a very important fundamental right, through this it has been tried that there should be no discrimination with any person on the basis of his caste, religion, language, gender, place of birth etc. and should be treated equally.

Question 28. Why is food security necessary for any country?

Answer. Food security is a very important process for any country, for which the following arguments can be given -

1. Food grains can be kept safe for the future through food security.

2. Food security is also necessary because through this food grains can be made available even in those areas where there is a shortage.

3. Only through food security, the government can provide food grains to the poor people at minimum price or free of cost.

Question 29. Why do you think Indian Judiciary is independent? Give reason.

Answer. Indian Judiciary is an independent judiciary for which we can give the following arguments –

1. Judges in India are appointed for a fixed term and cannot be removed before this term. If he has to be removed from the post, then a difficult process has to be adopted for this.

2. The above decisions given by the judges cannot be questioned in the parliament or anywhere else.

3. Judiciary in India is also considered independent because the salaries of all the judges are given from the consolidated fund of the country and no deduction can be made in them.

Section D (Long Answer Type Questions)

5X4=20 marks

Question 30. Describe the powers of the President of India.

Answer. The President of India is the first citizen of the country and all the administrative work of the country is conducted in the name of the President. We can understand the various powers of the President of India in this way-

1. The President of India is the first citizen of the country and is also the Commander-in-Chief of the three armies.

2. A bill passed by the Parliament requires the signature of the President to become a law. Without the signature of the President, no bill can become a law.

3. The President of India gives prior approval on the budget to be made for the country. The budget is presented in the Lok Sabha only after the approval of the President.

4. The President also has an important power that he can abolish the punishment of any person or change the form of that punishment.

5. The President of India also appoints officers to various posts such as Judges of the Supreme Court, Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, Election Commissioner etc.

6. The President of India also exercises emergency powers in the country. This means that whenever there is an abnormal situation in the country i.e. war or armed rebellion or financial crisis arises, the President can declare emergency.

7. The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament and the President also appoints the Prime Minister.

Or

Question. Describe the powers of the Prime Minister of India.

Answer. Parliamentary system of governance has been adopted in India, under which the real powers of the country are exercised by the Prime Minister with the help of his Council of Ministers. Some of the major functions of the Prime Minister of India are as follows -

1. The Prime Minister appoints various ministers. The President administers the oath to the ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

2. Only the Prime Minister can remove the ministers from their posts, if a minister does not perform his duties and responsibilities properly, then the Prime Minister removes that minister from his post.

3. The Prime Minister of India only takes forward the relations of the country and also represents the country at the international level.

4. The Prime Minister of India is the chief speaker of the government and on behalf of the government mentions any kind of policies and plans as the representative of the government.

5. The Prime Minister of India also prepares the country's budget with the help of the Finance Minister and gets it passed in the Parliament.

6. The Prime Minister of India presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet and also sets policies.

7. The Prime Minister decides which minister will be given which ministry.

8. The Prime Minister tries to establish coordination between various departments and ministries.

Question 31. Discuss the global poverty scenario.

Answer. Poverty is a challenge faced by most of the countries of the world. According to the definition of the World Bank, a person living on less than $1.9 is poor. We can understand the global poverty scenario through the following points -

1. According to World Bank estimates, the number of people living in the world who are poor has fallen from 36% in 1990 to 10% in 2015.

2. It has also been seen in this decline that there is considerable regional variation in it, that is, there has been a tremendous decrease in some areas, while there has not been much change in some areas.

3. Due to the rapid economic progress and increase in human resource development in China and the countries of South East Asia, there has been a significant reduction in poverty.

4. The number of poor in China has decreased from 88.3% in 1981 to 14.7% in 2008 and 0.6% in 2019.

5. The decline in the number of poor in the countries of South Asia, which include India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, has been more rapid, from 34% in 2005 to 15.2% in 2014.

6. Along with the decline in the percentage of poor, the number of poor has also declined, from 510.4 million in 2005 to 274.5 million in 2013.

Or

Question. Discuss the inter-state disparity of poverty in India.

Answer. Poverty has also emerged as a huge problem in India and this aspect of poverty in India has been unequal from state to state. We can understand the inter-state disparity of poverty in India in this way -

1. In India, although there has been a long-term reduction in state-level poverty since the early 1970s, the rate of success in reducing poverty varies from state to state.

2. The poverty ratio in India has been recorded at 22% in the year 2011-12. Some states like Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Odisha have poverty ratio higher than the national ratio.

3. Bihar and Odisha continue to be the two poorest states with poverty averages of 33.7 and 32.6% respectively.

4. Along with rural poverty, urban poverty is also high in Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

5. On the other hand, there has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.

6. States like Punjab and Haryana have traditionally been successful in reducing poverty with high agricultural rates. Human resource development has been given more attention in Kerala.

7. Land reform measures have helped in reducing poverty in West Bengal. Public distribution of food grains in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu can also be considered as the reason for its improvement.

Question 32. Write a short note on tropical rain forests.

Answer. Tropical rain forests form an important part of the Indian natural vegetation. We can understand tropical rain forests more in this way -

1. This type of forest is confined to the high rainfall areas of the Western Ghats such as the Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, upper parts of Assam and along the coast of Tamil Nadu.

2. Tropical rain forests can grow well in those areas where the amount of rainfall is more than 200 cm and a short dry season is also found.

3. Trees in tropical forests reach a height of 60 meters or more.

4. As this region is hot and humid throughout the year, all kinds of vegetation, trees, shrubs and creepers grow here and many levels are seen in the forests with their different heights.

5. Tropical Rain Forest There is no fixed time for autumn, so these forests look green throughout the year.

6. Many types of trees of commercial importance are found in these forests, in which ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona are prominent.

7. Common animals found in tropical rain forests are elephant monkeys, lemurs and deer, while the one-horned rhinoceros is found in the swampy areas of Assam and West Bengal.

8. Apart from all this, many types of birds like bats and many types of crawling creatures are also found in these forests.

Or

Question. Write a short note on thorny forest and shrubs.

Answer. Thorns and shrubs are also a major part of Indian vegetation. We can understand this type of vegetation through the following points –

1. This type of vegetation is found in areas where the amount of rainfall is less than 70 cm.

2. In India, this type of vegetation is found in the northwestern parts of the country, which include semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.

3. Plant species like Acacia date palm, Euphorbia, and Hawthorn are found in this type of vegetation.

4. The trees of these forests are scattered and their roots are long and spread all around in search of water.

5. The leaves of the trees in this type of forest are generally small, due to which evaporation can be reduced to a minimum.

6. Shrubs and thorny plants are found in dry areas. Rats, rabbits, foxes, wolves, lions, lions, wild ass, horses and camels are commonly found in these forests.

Question 33. Explain the main ideas of Karl Marx.

Answer. Karl Marx (1818–1882) is considered to be a very important and prominent political thinker who presented various ideas related to communism. We can understand the main ideas of Karl Marx through the following points -

1. Marx believed that the industrial society is a capitalist society and the capital employed in the factories is owned by the capitalists and the profits of the capitalists are generated only by the hard work of the workers.

2. Marx's conclusion was that as long as the private capitalists keep on accumulating profits in this way, there can be no improvement in the condition of the workers.

3. Marx believed that in order to improve their condition, the workers would have to overthrow capitalism and the system of governance based on private property.

4. Karl Marx believed that in order to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers would have to create a very different type of society in which all property would be socially controlled and owned by the whole society.

5. Karl Marx named this future society as communist society and said that the workers will ultimately win in the struggle with the capitalists and communist society will be the future society.

Or

Question. How was Stalin's collectivization program implemented in Russia?

Answer. The early phase of the planned economy was associated with the devastation caused by the collectivization of agriculture. Around 1927-28, there was a severe food crisis in the cities of Russia. After this Stalin tried to implement the principle of collectivization and it was implemented in this way -

1. In the year 1929, Stalin issued an order to all the farmers to work in the collective farms.

2. Most of the land and equipment were transferred to the ownership of collective farms. All farmers worked on collective farms and the profits of the kolkhoz were divided among all the farmers.

3. In protest against this decision, many farmers killed their animals in protest against the government. Between 1929 and 1931, the number of cattle decreased by one-third.

4. People who opposed collectivization were severely punished. Many people were expelled or exiled from the country.

5. Farmers who opposed collectivization said that they were neither rich nor opposed to socialism, they simply did not want to work on collective farms for various reasons.

6. The Stalin government also allowed the system of independent farmers to continue on a limited level, but no special help was given to such farmers.

Section D (Case Based Questions)

(4X3=12 marks)

Question 34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The manner in which the Constituent Assembly functioned gives sanctity and legitimacy to the Constitution. The work of the Constituent Assembly was fairly systematic, open and based on an effort to build consensus. First of all some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Then Dr BR Ambedkar, chairman of the Drafting Committee prepared a draft constitution for discussion. Each section of the draft constitution was discussed in several rounds. More than a thousand amendments were considered. A total of 114 days of serious discussion took place in 3 years. Every motion, every word, and every thing said in the meeting was recorded and preserved. These were published in 12 thick volumes titled Constituent Assembly Debates. From these debates, the thinking and reasoning behind each provision can be understood. The documents from this debate can be used to interpret the Constitution.

34.1- By what name were the discussions and proposals made in the Constituent Assembly published?

Answer. Constituent Assembly Debates.

34.2- Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly?

Answer. Dr B R Ambedkar.

34.3- Which document is used to interpret the constitution and why?

Answer. A document called the Constituent Assembly Debates is used to interpret the constitution as this document properly presents the thinking and reasoning behind various provisions of the constitution.

Question 35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Members of the Jacobin Club came mainly from the less affluent sections of society, including small shopkeepers and artisans such as shoemakers, pastry makers, watchmakers, cleaners, and servants and day laborers. Their leader was Maximilian Rowespierre. A large section of the Jacobinos decided to wear striped long trousers like the dock workers. They did this to differentiate themselves from the fashionable sections of society, especially the elite who wore breeches that went up to the knee. Hence Jacobino was known as 'Saun Kulat' which literally means one without knees. The 'Saun Kulat' men also wore a red colored cap which was a symbol of freedom. But women were not allowed to do so.

35.1 Who was the leader of the Jacobin Club?

Answer. Maximilien Rowespeire.

35.2 What did Jacobino's red cap symbolize?

Answer. Freedom.

35.3 State the importance of the Jacobin Club in French society.

Answer. Members of the Jacobin Club consisted of people from the less affluent sections of society. It led a struggle against the club oligarchs. In France this club tried to unite the people and created a basis for the struggle against the elite.

Question 36. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Apart from north-south, the Himalayas are also divided on the basis of regions located from west to east. These classifications have been done on the basis of boundaries of river basins. For example, the part of the Himalayas lying between the Sutlej and the Indus is known as the Punjab Himalaya. But from west to east it is known as Kashmir and Himachal Himalaya respectively. The part of the Himalayas situated between the Sutlej and Kali rivers is also known as the Kumaon Himalayas. The Kali and Teesta rivers demarcate the Nepal Himalayas and the Teesta and Dihang rivers demarcate the Assam Himalayas. The Brahmaputra forms the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas. The Himalayas of the Dihang Gorge spread along the eastern border of India making a sharp turn to the south. These are known as Purvanchal or Eastern hills and mountain ranges. These hills pass through the north eastern states and are made of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks. It is covered with dense forests and mostly spread in the form of parallel ranges and valleys.

36.1 On what basis are the Himalayas classified from west to east?

Answer. The classification of the Himalayas from west to east has been done on the basis of the boundaries of the river valleys.

36.2 Between which two rivers is the Punjab Himalaya situated?

Answer. The Punjab Himalayas lie between the Sutlej and the Indus rivers.

36.3 Mention any two features of the Eastern Hills.

Answer. The two features of the Eastern Hills are as follows-

1. These hills are made of strong sandstones which have a base of sedimentary rocks.

2. These hills are covered with thick forests and mostly spread in the form of parallel ranges and valleys.

Section F (Map Based Questions)

(2+3=5 marks)

Question 37.1 Two features A and B are marked on the political map of the world. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn on the map.

A. An allied nation.

B. Axis nation.

 Answer.

Question 37.2 Show and name any three of the following on the political outline map of India with the appropriate choice.

A.Himachal Pradesh

B. Anaimudi

C.Bihar

D.Konkan

E. Wular Lake

Answer.

The following question is in lieu of question number 37 only for visually impaired candidates.

(Do any five.)

37.1 Name the capital of Himachal Pradesh state.

Answer. Shimla.

37.2 Write the name of the state center / territory where Dehradun is located.

Answer. Uttarakhand.

37.3 When did the First World War end?

Answer. World War I ended in the year 1918.

37.4 When did the Second World War end?

Answer. World War II ended in the year 1945.

37.5 Name the State/Union Territory where Wular Lake is located.

Answer. Wular Lake is located in Jammu and Kashmir.

37.6 Name the capital of Chhattisgarh state.

Answer. Raipur.